December 4th, 2003 01:22 pm (UTC)
my name is Chris
man does have free will, and i'm an agnostic that i feel has little bias in this area.
it's about the modal modifier (used in symbolic logic) that pertains to necessity, where you place the modal modifier makes the differance.
God knows i will do x and i do x,
i do x and god knows i will do x.
now on which of these statements do you place the necessity? on the first there is no free will, on the second there is. this solves the theistic problem of free will, also God can be everlasting and omniscient at the same time. meaning god doesnt necessarily "see the future" but all the choices humans make and their interactions, what choices we make is up to us and god does little to nothing to change them since it would be illogical, and god being god can do nothing illogical (such as make a rock to big for him to lift, or be anything other than god).